“And the Lord spoke to Moses and Aaron, and gave them a charge to the people of Israel and to Pharaoh king of Egypt to bring the people of Israel out of the land of Egypt” (Exodus 6:13).

What did God charge them in regard to the people of Israel? Surely the intention was not to charge both Israel and Pharaoh equally to bring the people of Israel out of the land of Egypt. Abraham Ibn Ezra (1089-1164) gives a straightforward, simple explanation of this verse: “and gave them a charge to go to the people of Israel and to Pharaoh king of Egypt.” This explanation would seem to make the question superfluous. Nevertheless, other commentators do not adopt that approach, but rather speculate as to the charge that was given to Moses and Aaron in regard to the people of Israel. According to the Mekhilta of R. Ishmael (a midrash from the Tannaitic period): “They were charged to abandon idolatry”. In the spirit of Midrash Rabba (Exodus Rabba (Shinan) 7 s.v. 7:3 vayetzaveim) and other midrashim, Rashi (1040-1105) explains: “He charged them to lead them gently and to be patient with them”.

As opposed to this, the Jerusalem Talmud brings a surprising midrash in this regard: “R. Samuel b. R. Isaac said: And the Lord spoke to Moses and Aaron, and gave them a charge to the people of Israel. About what did he charge them? About freeing slaves” (Rosh Hashana 3:58 col. 4). In other words, the people of Israel are commanded, like Pharaoh, to free the Hebrew slaves. The command to bring the people out of the land of Egypt applies literally to Pharaoh, and this midrash applies it conceptually to the people of Israel. The Talmud supports this interpretation with a quote from the prophet Jeremiah: “Thus says the Lord, the God of Israel: I made a covenant with your fathers when I brought them out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of bondage, saying: At the end of six years each of you must set free the fellow Hebrew who has been sold to you and has served you six years; you must set him free from your service” (34:13-14).

This Talmudic midrash is problematic. The commandment to free slaves is first mentioned in parashat Mishpatim, after the theophany at Sinai: “When you acquire a Hebrew slave, he shall serve six years; in the seventh year he shall go free, without payment” (Exodus 21:2). Additionally, according to tradition, the first mitzva is that of sanctifying the new month: “This month shall mark for you the beginning of the months; it shall be the first of the months of the year for you” (12:2). This is set down in parashat Bo, after the Exodus and well before the commandment to free slaves. If so, the Talmudic midrash appears to contradict tradition in regard to what the Torah itself states. Clearly, then, the midrash is not attempting to explain the Biblical text.

1. Does the explanation suggested by Ibn Ezra resolve the difficulty in the verse? If his simple explanation solves the problem, is there any purpose in pursuing the issue of the content of the charge? Why not suffice with Ibn Ezra’s explanation? Do the various midrashim try to explicate the “plain meaning” of the verse?

2. The Mekhilta basis the view that the charge referred to idolatry upon the words “they did not heed Moses from shortness of spirit” (6:9). What might be the basis for the midrash that Moses and Aaron were charged to be gentle and patient? Does this also refer to “shortness of spirit”, or might it be intended as a reply to Moses’ complaint that “the Israelites would not listen to me” (6:12)?

3. Why does the Talmudic midrash change the order of the mitzvot, placing freeing slaves at the top of the list? Should we ascribe significance to the fact that, unlike sanctifying the month, freeing slaves is a mitzva that focuses upon other human beings?

4. According to the midrash, the people of Israel were given the commandment to free slaves when they were themselves still enslaved, rather than after the Exodus and their liberation from bondage. What value lesson is the midrash seeking to convey by establishing an earlier date for this commandment?